Timetable

English Boards General
1

I am currently operating 2 737-900ER HGWs and one 737-800ER HGW out of Boston (transf. time 1.15h). I want to offer connections for passengers from ORD(ex.) to CDG via my hub.

My problems are the following:

a.If I operate normal flights: BOS-SFO-BOS & BOS-CDG-BOS, I cannot offer passenger connections because i don’t meet the min. transf. time. (+i waste a lot of my life planning)

b.Because a) is an option I hate to apply, i thought of the following:

If i operate SFO-BOS-CDG-BOS-SFO (a normal via flight) will passengers coming out of SFO still connect for the flight to CDG? And if so, what about BOS passengers? Do they still use my airline to fly out of BOS to CDG, even if the airplane is coming from SFO?

Any help is a blessing. I am waiting for my 739s to be delivered, but used the 738 as a test for the timetable and it hurt my feelings and my brain :))). I just could not imagine succeeding to use the same airplane for a different than usual route management.

Thanks a lot!

2

2nd question:

Basically, if I fly A -> B -> C . Do passengers from B fly to C?

3

As long as you have traffic rights, passengers can book every leg of your flight seperately. In your case, passengers will be able too book every option: SFO-BOS, BOS-CDG, or SFO-BOS-CDG.

To “avoid” minimal transfer times, you don’t need via-flights - all you need is just to use the same aircraft. Passengers then can simply stay in the plane and continue on the next flight without any transfer time.